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Basics of Physics MCQs for FPSC Meteorologist & Assistant Meteorologist 

Explanation

FPSC Pakistan Meteorological Department · Both Posts

Basics of Physics MCQs for FPSC Meteorologist & Assistant Meteorologist (with Answers)

Basics of Physics MCQs are common to both the FPSC Meteorologist and Assistant Meteorologist syllabus, covering mechanics, heat, thermodynamics, waves, optics, electricity, magnetism and the gas laws that underpin atmospheric science. This page contains 108 free MCQs with detailed explanations. Tap any option to check your answer instantly.

Showing all 108 MCQs

Q1. The Ideal Gas Law relates pressure, volume and temperature of a gas, and is fundamental to understanding:

  • A. Sound propagation only
  • B. Only solid materials
  • C. Only liquid behaviour
  • D. How atmospheric pressure, density and temperature interrelate
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The Ideal Gas Law (PV = nRT) describes the relationship between pressure, volume and temperature of a gas, forming the theoretical basis for understanding how atmospheric pressure, density and temperature interact.

Q2. Latent heat refers to the heat:

  • A. Only present in solids
  • B. Released or absorbed only during temperature change
  • C. Absorbed or released during a change of phase (such as evaporation or condensation) without a change in temperature
  • D. Unrelated to water
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Latent heat is the energy absorbed or released during a phase change, such as evaporation, condensation, freezing or melting, occurring without any change in temperature during the phase transition itself.

Q3. The latent heat of vaporisation refers to the energy required to:

  • A. Warm water by one degree
  • B. Freeze water into ice
  • C. Compress a gas
  • D. Convert liquid water into water vapour at constant temperature
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The latent heat of vaporisation is the energy required to convert a given mass of liquid water into water vapour at a constant temperature, and its release during condensation is a key energy source for storms.

Q4. Specific heat capacity refers to:

  • A. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree
  • B. Atmospheric pressure
  • C. The total heat in an object
  • D. The freezing point of water
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree, and water’s high specific heat capacity explains why oceans moderate coastal climates.

Q5. Adiabatic cooling of rising air refers to cooling that occurs:

  • A. Due to the air expanding as it rises into lower pressure, without any heat being added or removed
  • B. Only at night
  • C. Due to heat loss to the surrounding environment
  • D. Only near the ground
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Adiabatic cooling occurs when rising air expands due to decreasing surrounding pressure, doing work on its environment and cooling as a result, without any direct exchange of heat with its surroundings.

Q6. The dry adiabatic lapse rate (for unsaturated air) is approximately:

  • A. 3 degrees C per 100 metres
  • B. 6.5 degrees C per 100 metres
  • C. 1 degree C per 100 metres
  • D. 10 degrees C per 1000 metres (1 degree C per 100 metres)
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is approximately 10 degrees Celsius per 1,000 metres (1 degree per 100 metres), describing how unsaturated rising air cools as it expands.

Q7. The saturated (moist) adiabatic lapse rate is generally:

  • A. Not related to condensation
  • B. Exactly equal to the dry rate always
  • C. Less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, due to the release of latent heat as condensation occurs
  • D. Greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is generally less than the dry rate because the latent heat released as water vapour condenses partially offsets the cooling caused by expansion.

Q8. Atmospheric stability refers to the tendency of air to:

  • A. Have constant pressure
  • B. Resist or enhance vertical motion, depending on how its temperature compares with its surroundings at increasing height
  • C. Always rise regardless of conditions
  • D. Only move horizontally
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Atmospheric stability describes whether a parcel of air, once displaced vertically, tends to return to its original position (stable), continue rising or sinking (unstable), or remain in its new position (neutral).

Q9. Unstable atmospheric conditions favour the development of:

  • A. Only fog
  • B. Calm, clear weather
  • C. Only drizzle
  • D. Convective clouds and thunderstorms
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Unstable atmospheric conditions, where rising air continues to accelerate upward, favour the vigorous vertical development of convective clouds and thunderstorms.

Q10. The Stefan-Boltzmann law describes the relationship between an object’s temperature and:

  • A. Its mass
  • B. Its colour only
  • C. Its humidity
  • D. The total energy it radiates
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The Stefan-Boltzmann law states that the total energy radiated by an object is proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature, fundamental to understanding radiative heat transfer in the atmosphere.

Q11. Wien’s Law relates an object’s temperature to:

  • A. Its pressure
  • B. The wavelength at which it radiates most intensely
  • C. Its density
  • D. Its volume
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Wien’s Displacement Law states that the wavelength of peak radiation emitted by an object is inversely proportional to its temperature, explaining why the (hot) Sun emits mostly visible light while the (cooler) Earth emits mostly infrared.

Q12. Which unit is commonly used to express atmospheric pressure in meteorology?

  • A. Watt
  • B. Hectopascal (or millibar)
  • C. Joule
  • D. Newton
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Atmospheric pressure in meteorology is commonly expressed in hectopascals (hPa), numerically equivalent to the older unit millibar (mb).

Q13. The Doppler effect, used in weather radar, refers to the change in observed wave frequency due to:

  • A. Wave colour
  • B. Air pressure
  • C. Temperature alone
  • D. Relative motion between the wave source (or reflecting object) and the observer
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The Doppler effect describes the change in the observed frequency of a wave caused by relative motion between the source (or a reflecting target) and the observer, exploited by Doppler radar to detect the motion of precipitation.

Q14. The three states of matter most commonly discussed are:

  • A. Hot, warm and cold
  • B. Fast, slow and still
  • C. Solid, liquid and gas
  • D. Light, heavy and dense
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Matter is classically described as existing in three basic states: solid, liquid and gas, each distinguished by the arrangement and movement of its constituent particles.

Q15. Density is defined as:

  • A. Volume divided by mass
  • B. Temperature divided by pressure
  • C. Mass divided by volume
  • D. Weight multiplied by height
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Density is defined as an object’s mass divided by its volume, describing how tightly matter is packed within a given space.

Q16. Newton’s First Law of Motion states that an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by:

  • A. An external unbalanced force
  • B. Only air pressure
  • C. Only friction
  • D. Gravity alone
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Newton’s First Law (the law of inertia) states that an object remains at rest or continues moving at constant velocity unless acted upon by an external unbalanced (net) force.

Q17. Newton’s Second Law of Motion is commonly expressed as the equation:

  • A. E = mc squared
  • B. P = mgh
  • C. V = IR
  • D. F = ma (Force = mass x acceleration)
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Newton’s Second Law states that force equals mass multiplied by acceleration (F = ma), describing how the motion of an object changes under an applied force.

Q18. According to Newton’s Third Law, for every action there is:

  • A. A delayed reaction only
  • B. A reaction of half the magnitude
  • C. An equal and opposite reaction
  • D. No reaction
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Newton’s Third Law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.

Q19. The SI unit of force is the:

  • A. Watt
  • B. Pascal
  • C. Newton
  • D. Joule
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Newton (N) is the SI unit of force, defined as the force required to accelerate a mass of one kilogram at one metre per second squared.

Q20. The SI unit of pressure is the:

  • A. Newton
  • B. Watt
  • C. Pascal
  • D. Joule
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Pascal (Pa) is the SI unit of pressure, defined as one Newton of force applied over an area of one square metre.

Q21. The SI unit of energy is the:

  • A. Ampere
  • B. Pascal
  • C. Newton
  • D. Joule
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The Joule (J) is the SI unit of energy, representing the work done when a force of one Newton moves an object one metre.

Q22. Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its:

  • A. Electric charge
  • B. Motion
  • C. Temperature alone
  • D. Position or height
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses because of its motion, and it increases with both mass and the square of velocity.

Q23. Potential energy, such as gravitational potential energy, is energy possessed due to an object’s:

  • A. Electric current
  • B. Position or state (such as height above the ground)
  • C. Colour
  • D. Motion
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Potential energy is stored energy related to an object’s position or state, such as gravitational potential energy, which depends on an object’s height above a reference point.

Q24. The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy:

  • A. Cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another
  • B. Can be created but not destroyed
  • C. Can be destroyed but not created
  • D. Is always lost over time
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form into another, within a closed system.

Q25. Refraction of light refers to:

  • A. The complete absorption of light
  • B. The bending of light as it passes from one medium into another of different density
  • C. The splitting of light into colours only
  • D. The bouncing of light off a surface
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Refraction is the bending of a light wave as it passes from one transparent medium into another with a different optical density, such as from air into water.

Q26. A rainbow is formed through which optical processes acting on sunlight within raindrops?

  • A. Refraction, internal reflection and dispersion
  • B. Only absorption
  • C. Only diffraction
  • D. Only reflection
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A rainbow forms when sunlight is refracted upon entering a raindrop, internally reflected off the back of the drop, and refracted again upon exiting, with the different wavelengths of light dispersing at slightly different angles to create the visible spectrum.

Q27. Ohm’s Law relates voltage, current and resistance in an electrical circuit as:

  • A. V = IR (Voltage = Current x Resistance)
  • B. E = mc squared
  • C. F = ma
  • D. P = IV
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Ohm’s Law states that voltage equals current multiplied by resistance (V = IR), a fundamental relationship in basic electrical circuits.

Q28. Which type of heat transfer dominates the movement of heat within a boiling pot of water?

  • A. Convection
  • B. No heat transfer occurs
  • C. Conduction only
  • D. Radiation only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Convection dominates within a boiling liquid, as warmer, less dense fluid rises while cooler, denser fluid sinks, creating a circulating current that transfers heat efficiently throughout the liquid.

Q29. The frequency of a wave is defined as:

  • A. The number of complete wave cycles passing a fixed point per unit time
  • B. The height of the wave
  • C. The distance between successive wave crests
  • D. The speed of the wave
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Frequency is the number of complete wave cycles that pass a given point in one unit of time, typically measured in Hertz (cycles per second).

Q30. Wavelength is defined as:

  • A. The speed of a wave
  • B. The number of waves per second
  • C. The distance between two successive corresponding points on a wave, such as crest to crest
  • D. The energy carried by a wave
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Wavelength is the physical distance between two successive corresponding points on a wave, such as from one crest to the next.

Q31. The relationship between wave speed, frequency and wavelength is expressed as:

  • A. Speed = frequency multiplied by wavelength
  • B. Speed = frequency divided by wavelength
  • C. Speed = frequency minus wavelength
  • D. Speed is unrelated to frequency and wavelength
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Wave speed equals frequency multiplied by wavelength (v = f x lambda), a fundamental relationship applicable to all wave types including sound and electromagnetic waves.

Q32. An object floats in a fluid when its density is:

  • A. Greater than the fluid’s density
  • B. Always exactly equal to the fluid
  • C. Irrelevant to floating
  • D. Less than or equal to the fluid’s density
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

An object floats when its overall density is less than or equal to the density of the fluid it is placed in, in accordance with the principle of buoyancy (Archimedes’ Principle).

Q33. Archimedes’ Principle states that the buoyant force on a submerged object equals:

  • A. The object’s volume alone
  • B. The weight of the fluid displaced by the object
  • C. The object’s own weight always
  • D. Zero in all cases
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Archimedes’ Principle states that the upward buoyant force acting on a submerged or floating object is equal to the weight of the fluid that the object displaces.

Q34. The freezing point of water at standard atmospheric pressure is:

  • A. 32 degrees Celsius (which is also correct in Fahrenheit, but the Celsius value asked here is 0)
  • B. 10 degrees Celsius
  • C. Minus 10 degrees Celsius
  • D. 0 degrees Celsius
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

At standard atmospheric pressure, water freezes at 0 degrees Celsius, equivalent to 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

Q35. Which law states that, for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely related?

  • A. Ohm’s Law
  • B. Newton’s Law
  • C. Boyle’s Law
  • D. Charles’s Law
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Boyle’s Law states that for a fixed quantity of gas at constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely proportional: as volume decreases, pressure increases, and vice versa.

Q36. Which law states that, at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature?

  • A. Charles’s Law
  • B. Pascal’s Law
  • C. Newton’s Law
  • D. Boyle’s Law
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Charles’s Law states that at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed quantity of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature: as temperature increases, volume increases proportionally.

Q37. An object’s weight, as distinct from its mass, is best described as:

  • A. A measure independent of gravity
  • B. Always constant regardless of location
  • C. Identical to mass in all situations
  • D. The force of gravity acting on the object’s mass
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Weight is the force exerted on an object’s mass due to gravity, and therefore varies depending on the local gravitational field, unlike mass, which remains constant.

Q38. Power, in physics, is defined as:

  • A. Force multiplied by distance
  • B. Mass multiplied by velocity
  • C. The same as energy, with no distinction
  • D. The rate at which work is done or energy is transferred, per unit time
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred, measured as energy or work divided by the time taken, with the SI unit being the Watt.

Q39. The three fundamental laws of thermodynamics govern:

  • A. Only electrical circuits
  • B. Energy, heat and work transformations in physical systems
  • C. Only wave motion
  • D. Only chemical reactions
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

The laws of thermodynamics govern how energy, heat and work are transformed and transferred within physical systems, forming the theoretical foundation for understanding atmospheric heat exchange.

Q40. The First Law of Thermodynamics is essentially a statement of:

  • A. Conservation of momentum
  • B. Conservation of mass only
  • C. Newton’s Third Law
  • D. Conservation of energy, applied to heat and work
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted between forms such as heat and work, within a closed system.

Q41. Which state change releases latent heat into the surrounding air?

  • A. Evaporation
  • B. Sublimation from solid to gas
  • C. Melting
  • D. Condensation
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Condensation, the change from vapour to liquid, releases latent heat into the surroundings, which is a major energy source powering storms and warming the atmosphere locally.

Q42. Which state change absorbs latent heat from the surrounding air?

  • A. Condensation
  • B. Evaporation
  • C. Freezing
  • D. Deposition
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Evaporation, the change from liquid to vapour, absorbs latent heat from its surroundings, which is why evaporative cooling makes the air near a wet surface feel cooler.

Q43. Sublimation refers to the direct change of state from:

  • A. Liquid to gas
  • B. Solid directly to gas, without passing through the liquid phase
  • C. Gas to liquid
  • D. Liquid to solid
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Sublimation is the direct transition of a substance from solid to gas, bypassing the liquid phase entirely, as observed with dry ice or snow disappearing without visibly melting.

Q44. Deposition, the reverse of sublimation, refers to the direct change from:

  • A. Gas directly to solid, without passing through the liquid phase
  • B. Solid to liquid
  • C. Liquid to solid
  • D. Gas to liquid
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Deposition is the direct transition from gas to solid, bypassing the liquid phase, as seen when frost forms directly from water vapour on a cold surface.

Q45. A vacuum is best described as a space:

  • A. Filled with pure oxygen
  • B. Devoid of matter, including air
  • C. Filled entirely with air
  • D. Filled only with water vapour
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

A vacuum is a region of space essentially devoid of matter, including air, and therefore cannot support sound transmission or conduction/convection of heat.

Q46. Sound cannot travel through:

  • A. A vacuum
  • B. Air
  • C. Steel
  • D. Water
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Sound is a mechanical wave requiring a medium (solid, liquid or gas) to propagate, so it cannot travel through a vacuum, unlike electromagnetic radiation such as light.

Q47. The speed of sound in air, at room temperature, is approximately:

  • A. 34 metres per second
  • B. 340 metres per second
  • C. 34,000 metres per second
  • D. 3,400 metres per second
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

The speed of sound in air at room temperature is approximately 340 metres per second, though it varies with temperature and the medium through which it travels.

Q48. An echo occurs due to which property of sound waves?

  • A. Absorption
  • B. Refraction
  • C. Reflection off a surface
  • D. Diffraction only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

An echo results from sound waves reflecting off a distant surface and returning to the listener after a perceptible delay.

Q49. The unit of frequency, Hertz, represents:

  • A. Cycles per second
  • B. Metres per second
  • C. Joules per second
  • D. Newtons per metre
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

The Hertz (Hz) is the SI unit of frequency, representing the number of complete wave cycles occurring per second.

Q50. Electromagnetic radiation travels through a vacuum at:

  • A. The speed of light, approximately 300,000 kilometres per second
  • B. A variable, unpredictable speed
  • C. Zero speed
  • D. Only the speed of sound
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Unlike sound, electromagnetic radiation, including visible light, requires no medium and travels through a vacuum at the speed of light, approximately 300,000 kilometres per second.

Q51. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum has a longer wavelength than visible light?

  • A. Ultraviolet
  • B. Infrared
  • C. Gamma rays
  • D. X-rays
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Infrared radiation has a longer wavelength than visible light, and is significant in meteorology since satellites use infrared sensors to detect cloud-top temperatures.

Q52. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum has a shorter wavelength than visible light?

  • A. Infrared
  • B. Ultraviolet
  • C. Microwaves
  • D. Radio waves
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Ultraviolet radiation has a shorter wavelength (and higher energy) than visible light, and is largely absorbed by the stratospheric ozone layer.

Q53. A simple pendulum’s period of oscillation primarily depends on its:

  • A. Colour
  • B. Length and the local gravitational acceleration
  • C. Air temperature only
  • D. Mass alone
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

The period of a simple pendulum depends primarily on its length and the local value of gravitational acceleration, and is essentially independent of the pendulum’s mass or amplitude for small swings.

Q54. Static electricity, relevant to lightning formation, results from:

  • A. Continuous current flow
  • B. An imbalance of electric charge on the surface of a material
  • C. Only magnetic fields
  • D. Heat transfer alone
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Static electricity arises from an imbalance of electric charge, often through friction, and its buildup and eventual discharge is the basic mechanism behind lightning within thunderstorm clouds.

Q55. A capacitor in an electrical circuit functions primarily to:

  • A. Convert heat into electricity
  • B. Measure current only
  • C. Store electrical charge and energy
  • D. Generate electricity
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

A capacitor stores electrical charge and energy within an electric field, and can release that stored energy rapidly, analogous in a very general sense to charge buildup in storm clouds before a lightning discharge.

Q56. Terminal velocity is the constant speed reached by a falling object when:

  • A. The object stops accelerating due to a vacuum
  • B. Gravity exceeds air resistance
  • C. Air resistance (drag) balances the force of gravity
  • D. There is no air resistance
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Terminal velocity is reached when the upward force of air resistance on a falling object exactly balances the downward force of gravity, so the object stops accelerating and falls at constant speed, relevant to raindrop and hailstone fall speeds.

Q57. Surface tension is the property of a liquid surface that causes it to:

  • A. Expand indefinitely
  • B. Behave like a stretched elastic membrane, minimising surface area
  • C. Evaporate instantly
  • D. Freeze at room temperature
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Surface tension arises from cohesive forces between liquid molecules at the surface, causing the surface to behave like a stretched elastic membrane and minimise its area, relevant to the shape of raindrops.

Q58. Which of these best describes the concept of ‘inertia’?

  • A. A type of energy
  • B. The tendency of an object to accelerate on its own
  • C. The tendency of an object to resist a change in its state of motion
  • D. A unit of force
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Inertia is the inherent tendency of an object to resist any change in its state of motion, whether at rest or moving at constant velocity, as described by Newton’s First Law.

Q59. Mass is best defined as:

  • A. A measure of an object’s weight only
  • B. A measure of the amount of matter in an object
  • C. A measure of volume
  • D. A unit of force
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Mass is a fundamental measure of the amount of matter contained in an object, and unlike weight, it does not change with location or gravitational field strength.

Q60. The SI unit of mass is the:

  • A. Newton
  • B. Pound
  • C. Gram
  • D. Kilogram
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The kilogram (kg) is the base SI unit of mass, from which other mass units such as the gram are derived.

Q61. Volume is best defined as:

  • A. The amount of space an object occupies
  • B. The temperature of an object
  • C. The weight of an object
  • D. The mass of an object
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Volume is the amount of three-dimensional space occupied by an object or substance, measured in units such as cubic metres or litres.

Q62. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of:

  • A. Mass over time
  • B. Velocity over time
  • C. Distance alone
  • D. Temperature over time
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Acceleration is defined as the rate at which an object’s velocity changes over time, whether in speed, direction, or both.

Q63. Velocity differs from speed in that velocity:

  • A. Includes both magnitude and direction
  • B. Has no units
  • C. Is only used for stationary objects
  • D. Is always greater than speed
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it specifies both magnitude (speed) and direction, whereas speed is a scalar quantity specifying only magnitude.

Q64. A scalar quantity is one that has:

  • A. Magnitude only, no direction
  • B. Direction only
  • C. Neither magnitude nor direction
  • D. Magnitude and direction
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A scalar quantity is fully described by magnitude alone, such as mass or temperature, without any associated direction, unlike a vector quantity.

Q65. A vector quantity is one that has:

  • A. Both magnitude and direction
  • B. Neither magnitude nor direction
  • C. Direction only, no magnitude
  • D. Magnitude only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A vector quantity requires both a magnitude and a direction to be fully specified, such as velocity, force, or displacement.

Q66. Displacement differs from distance in that displacement is:

  • A. Always greater than distance
  • B. A vector quantity measuring the straight-line change in position, including direction
  • C. Measured only in time units
  • D. Always equal to distance
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Displacement is a vector quantity representing the straight-line distance and direction from a starting point to an ending point, which may be less than the total distance travelled along a curved or indirect path.

Q67. Momentum is defined as the product of an object’s:

  • A. Mass and velocity
  • B. Volume and density
  • C. Mass and temperature
  • D. Force and time only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Momentum is calculated as the product of an object’s mass and its velocity, and it is a key quantity conserved in collisions according to the law of conservation of momentum.

Q68. The Law of Conservation of Momentum states that in a closed system, total momentum:

  • A. Always increases
  • B. Becomes zero
  • C. Remains constant if no external force acts
  • D. Always decreases
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Law of Conservation of Momentum states that the total momentum of a closed system remains constant over time, provided no external unbalanced force acts upon it.

Q69. Friction is a force that:

  • A. Only exists in liquids
  • B. Always increases motion
  • C. Has no effect on moving objects
  • D. Opposes relative motion between two surfaces in contact
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Friction is a resistive force that opposes the relative motion or attempted motion between two surfaces in contact, converting some kinetic energy into heat.

Q70. Which type of friction acts on an object already in motion?

  • A. Static friction
  • B. Magnetic friction
  • C. Kinetic (sliding) friction
  • D. Gravitational friction
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Kinetic or sliding friction acts on an object that is already moving relative to a surface, generally being somewhat less than the maximum static friction that must be overcome to start motion.

Q71. Centripetal force is the force that:

  • A. Acts only in a straight line
  • B. Has no relation to circular motion
  • C. Pushes an object away from the centre of a circular path
  • D. Pulls an object toward the centre of a circular path, keeping it in circular motion
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Centripetal force acts toward the centre of a circular path, continuously changing the direction of a moving object’s velocity to keep it moving in a circle rather than a straight line.

Q72. A lever is a simple machine that works on the principle of:

  • A. Only electrical current
  • B. Friction reduction only
  • C. A rigid bar pivoting around a fixed point (fulcrum) to amplify force
  • D. Fluid pressure
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

A lever is a rigid bar that pivots around a fixed point called the fulcrum, allowing a smaller applied force to move a larger load, or to change the direction of an applied force.

Q73. A pulley is a simple machine primarily used to:

  • A. Generate electricity
  • B. Change the direction of an applied force and/or provide mechanical advantage in lifting loads
  • C. Store chemical energy
  • D. Measure temperature
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

A pulley uses a grooved wheel and rope or cable to change the direction of an applied force, and when used in combination, can also provide significant mechanical advantage for lifting heavy loads.

Q74. Mechanical advantage of a simple machine is defined as the ratio of:

  • A. Distance moved by the load to distance moved by the effort
  • B. Input force to output force
  • C. Time taken to complete the task
  • D. Output force (load) to input force (effort)
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Mechanical advantage is the ratio of the output force (load lifted or moved) to the input force (effort applied), indicating how much a machine multiplies an applied force.

Q75. The centre of gravity of an object is the point at which:

  • A. Its density is lowest
  • B. It experiences the least friction
  • C. Its temperature is highest
  • D. All its mass is concentrated for the purpose of analysing gravitational effects
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The centre of gravity is the point at which an object’s entire weight can be considered to act, useful for analysing balance and stability.

Q76. An object is in stable equilibrium if, when slightly displaced, it:

  • A. Falls over completely
  • B. Continues moving away from its original position
  • C. Tends to return to its original position
  • D. Remains exactly where it was displaced to
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

An object in stable equilibrium, when slightly displaced, experiences a restoring force or torque that tends to return it to its original position.

Q77. Which of these best describes ‘work’ in the physics sense?

  • A. The same as power
  • B. The product of force applied and the displacement of an object in the direction of that force
  • C. Any physical or mental effort
  • D. Only muscular exertion
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

In physics, work is done when a force causes displacement of an object, calculated as the force multiplied by the displacement in the direction of the force.

Q78. If no displacement occurs, the work done by a force, according to physics, is:

  • A. Zero
  • B. Always negative
  • C. Always positive
  • D. Undefined
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

If an applied force produces no displacement of the object, no work is done in the physics sense, even if considerable effort or force was exerted, such as pushing against an immovable wall.

Q79. An object’s inertia is directly related to its:

  • A. Colour
  • B. Mass
  • C. Temperature
  • D. Electric charge
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

An object’s inertia, its resistance to a change in motion, is directly related to its mass; more massive objects have greater inertia.

Q80. Which type of lens converges (focuses) parallel light rays to a point?

  • A. Convex (converging) lens
  • B. Concave lens
  • C. No lens can do this
  • D. Plane lens
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A convex, or converging, lens is thicker at the centre than the edges and bends parallel light rays inward to converge at a focal point.

Q81. Which type of lens causes parallel light rays to spread apart (diverge)?

  • A. Concave (diverging) lens
  • B. Prism only
  • C. Convex lens
  • D. Plane mirror
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A concave, or diverging, lens is thinner at the centre than the edges and causes parallel light rays to spread apart, appearing to originate from a virtual focal point.

Q82. Reflection of light refers to:

  • A. Light splitting into colours
  • B. Light bouncing off a surface
  • C. Light bending as it passes through a medium
  • D. Light being absorbed completely
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Reflection occurs when light rays strike a surface and bounce back, following the law of reflection where the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection.

Q83. A concave mirror generally:

  • A. Diverges all light rays
  • B. Cannot reflect light at all
  • C. Always produces a smaller virtual image
  • D. Can converge light rays and, depending on object distance, form real or virtual images
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

A concave mirror curves inward and can converge reflected light rays, producing either a real, inverted image or a virtual, magnified image depending on the object’s distance from the mirror.

Q84. A convex mirror generally produces images that are:

  • A. Virtual, upright and reduced in size
  • B. Always real and inverted
  • C. Only visible in darkness
  • D. Always the same size as the object
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A convex mirror curves outward and always produces a virtual, upright and reduced (smaller) image, regardless of the object’s distance, which is why they are used for wide-angle viewing such as vehicle side mirrors.

Q85. The human eye focuses light primarily using which structure?

  • A. The retina
  • B. The iris alone
  • C. The lens and cornea
  • D. The optic nerve
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The cornea and the lens of the eye work together to refract and focus incoming light onto the retina, forming a clear image.

Q86. Dispersion of white light through a prism occurs because different wavelengths (colours) of light:

  • A. Travel at exactly the same speed and bend equally
  • B. Refract by slightly different amounts, separating into a spectrum
  • C. Are absorbed completely
  • D. Reflect rather than refract
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Dispersion occurs because different wavelengths of light refract by slightly different amounts when passing through a prism, causing white light to separate into its constituent spectrum of colours.

Q87. An electric circuit is described as ‘open’ when:

  • A. There is a break in the circuit path, preventing current flow
  • B. Resistance is zero
  • C. Voltage is at maximum
  • D. Current flows continuously
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

An open circuit has a break or gap in its conductive path, preventing the flow of electric current, unlike a closed circuit which provides a complete path.

Q88. In a series electrical circuit, if one component fails (creating a break), the effect on the rest of the circuit is:

  • A. Only that component is affected
  • B. The entire circuit stops functioning, since there is only one path for current
  • C. Current increases elsewhere
  • D. No effect at all
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

In a series circuit, components are connected along a single path, so a break at any one point interrupts the entire circuit, stopping current flow throughout.

Q89. In a parallel electrical circuit, if one branch fails, the effect on other branches is generally:

  • A. Voltage becomes zero everywhere
  • B. All branches are destroyed
  • C. The entire circuit stops
  • D. Other branches can continue to function independently, since each has its own current path
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

In a parallel circuit, each branch provides an independent path for current, so a failure in one branch generally does not prevent current from flowing through the other branches.

Q90. A conductor is a material that:

  • A. Blocks the flow of electric current entirely
  • B. Allows electric current to flow through it relatively easily
  • C. Only conducts heat, never electricity
  • D. Is always a liquid
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

A conductor is a material, typically a metal, that allows electric current to flow through it with relatively little resistance, due to the free movement of electrons.

Q91. An insulator is a material that:

  • A. Conducts electric current very easily
  • B. Is always metallic
  • C. Strongly resists or prevents the flow of electric current
  • D. Only exists at very high temperatures
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

An insulator is a material that strongly resists the flow of electric current, due to its electrons being tightly bound, making it useful for protecting against unwanted current flow.

Q92. A magnetic field is a region in which:

  • A. Only electric charges exist
  • B. Only light can travel
  • C. A magnetic force can be detected, acting on magnetic materials or moving charges
  • D. Gravity has no effect
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

A magnetic field is the region of space surrounding a magnet or current-carrying conductor within which a magnetic force can be detected acting on other magnetic materials or moving electric charges.

Q93. An electromagnet is created by:

  • A. Heating a piece of iron
  • B. Passing an electric current through a coil of wire, often wound around an iron core
  • C. Cooling a piece of copper
  • D. A permanent bar magnet alone
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

An electromagnet is formed by passing an electric current through a coil of wire, often wrapped around an iron core, generating a magnetic field that exists only while current flows.

Q94. Which principle underlies the operation of an electric generator?

  • A. Sound wave conversion
  • B. Only chemical reactions
  • C. Nuclear fission
  • D. Electromagnetic induction, converting mechanical energy into electrical energy
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

An electric generator operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction, converting mechanical energy (such as rotational motion) into electrical energy by moving a conductor through a magnetic field.

Q95. An electric motor essentially performs the reverse function of a generator by:

  • A. Converting sound into electricity
  • B. Converting electrical energy into mechanical (rotational) energy
  • C. Storing chemical energy
  • D. Converting heat into light
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy, typically producing rotational motion, the reverse process of an electric generator which converts mechanical energy into electricity.

Q96. Density of a substance changes with temperature primarily because:

  • A. Mass changes significantly with temperature
  • B. Volume typically changes (usually expanding) with temperature while mass remains constant
  • C. Density is unrelated to temperature
  • D. Temperature has no physical effect
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

As temperature increases, most substances expand, increasing their volume while their mass remains essentially constant, which reduces their density; the reverse occurs on cooling.

Q97. Thermal expansion refers to the tendency of matter to:

  • A. Remain exactly the same size at all temperatures
  • B. Change in volume in response to a change in temperature, typically expanding when heated
  • C. Only apply to liquids
  • D. Contract when heated
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Thermal expansion describes how most materials change volume, typically expanding, in response to an increase in temperature, an important consideration in engineering and instrument design.

Q98. Which of these materials generally has the highest thermal conductivity?

  • A. Rubber
  • B. Metal (such as copper)
  • C. Wood
  • D. Air
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Metals such as copper have high thermal conductivity, efficiently transferring heat through conduction, whereas materials like wood, air and rubber are relatively poor conductors (better insulators).

Q99. A thermos flask (vacuum flask) minimises heat transfer primarily by:

  • A. Using a vacuum layer to reduce conduction and convection, plus reflective surfaces to reduce radiation
  • B. Increasing air circulation
  • C. Using only metal construction
  • D. Maximising conduction
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

A thermos flask uses a vacuum between double walls to virtually eliminate heat transfer by conduction and convection, combined with reflective surfaces to minimise radiative heat loss or gain.

Q100. Black surfaces are generally better than white or shiny surfaces at:

  • A. Reflecting light and heat
  • B. Absorbing and radiating heat
  • C. Insulating against all heat transfer
  • D. Conducting electricity
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Dark or black surfaces absorb a greater proportion of incident radiation and are also more effective radiators of heat compared with light-coloured or shiny, reflective surfaces.

Q101. An object’s kinetic energy is calculated using which formula?

  • A. KE = F x d
  • B. KE = 1/2 m v squared
  • C. KE = mgh
  • D. KE = m x a
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Kinetic energy is calculated as one half multiplied by mass multiplied by velocity squared (KE = 1/2 m v²), showing that kinetic energy increases with the square of velocity.

Q102. Gravitational potential energy is calculated using which formula (where h is height)?

  • A. PE = 1/2 m v squared
  • B. PE = m/v
  • C. PE = m g h
  • D. PE = F x t
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Gravitational potential energy is calculated as mass multiplied by gravitational acceleration multiplied by height (PE = mgh), representing stored energy due to an object’s position above a reference level.

Q103. An object dropped from a height, ignoring air resistance, converts its potential energy into:

  • A. Heat only
  • B. Chemical energy
  • C. Sound energy only
  • D. Kinetic energy as it falls
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

As an object falls under gravity, its gravitational potential energy progressively converts into kinetic energy, with the total mechanical energy remaining constant if air resistance is ignored.

Q104. Which of these correctly orders the electromagnetic spectrum from longest to shortest wavelength?

  • A. Visible light, radio waves, X-rays, gamma rays
  • B. Gamma rays, X-rays, visible light, radio waves
  • C. Radio waves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays
  • D. Ultraviolet, infrared, radio waves, gamma rays
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The electromagnetic spectrum, ordered from longest to shortest wavelength, runs: radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and finally gamma rays with the shortest wavelength.

Q105. Which of these correctly orders the electromagnetic spectrum by increasing energy?

  • A. Gamma rays to radio waves
  • B. Visible light only, with no other order
  • C. Radio waves to gamma rays
  • D. X-rays to infrared
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Electromagnetic radiation energy increases as wavelength decreases, so the order of increasing energy runs from radio waves (lowest energy) through to gamma rays (highest energy).

Q106. An object’s specific gravity is defined relative to the density of:

  • A. Iron
  • B. Air
  • C. Mercury
  • D. Pure water
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Specific gravity is the ratio of a substance’s density to the density of a reference substance, conventionally pure water at a specified temperature, giving a dimensionless value.

Q107. Atmospheric pressure decreasing with altitude is primarily explained by:

  • A. There being progressively less air mass above to exert weight at higher altitudes
  • B. Increasing gravity with height
  • C. Decreasing humidity
  • D. Increasing temperature with height
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

As altitude increases, there is progressively less atmospheric mass above a given point, resulting in lower atmospheric pressure, a direct consequence of how pressure relates to the weight of overlying air.

Q108. A hydraulic system, such as a hydraulic jack, works based on the principle that:

  • A. Gases are easily compressed
  • B. Heat is required to transmit force
  • C. Pressure applied to an enclosed, incompressible fluid is transmitted equally throughout the fluid (Pascal’s Principle)
  • D. Only solids can transmit force
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Hydraulic systems operate on Pascal’s Principle, which states that pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted undiminished throughout the fluid, allowing a small input force to generate a much larger output force.

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