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Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 MCQs

Explanation

Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 MCQs for PPSC Jobs (with Answers)

178 free MCQs with detailed explanations on the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 (Act XVI of 2011), prepared for PPSC Food Safety Officer, Assistant Food Safety Officer, Assistant Public Analyst and Microbiologist posts under the Punjab Food Authority. Every question is sourced directly from the official consolidated Act text — covering its establishment, powers, enforcement mechanism, offences and penalties, and jurisdiction — with every answer carrying a full explanation citing the exact section number, so you understand the law rather than memorising a letter.

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Click any chapter below to practise its questions.

ChapterMCQs
All Chapters178
Preliminary & Definitions26
Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority25
Powers, Functions & Officers29
Enforcement Mechanism12
Offences & Penalties37
Jurisdiction & Procedure23
Finances & Reports12
Miscellaneous Provisions14

Q1. The Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 is officially cited as:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Act XVI of 2011
  • B. Act XXI of 2011
  • C. Act XI of 2011
  • D. Act XIX of 2011
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 1(1) states the Act may be cited as the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011, and it is formally numbered Act XVI of 2011.

Q2. To what area does the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 extend?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Only the districts with a functional PFA office
  • B. The whole of the Punjab
  • C. Only Lahore district
  • D. All of Pakistan
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 1(2) states that the Act extends to the whole of the Punjab.

Q3. When does the Act come into force, according to Section 1(3)?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. On the date of the first PFA meeting
  • B. On such date as the Government may, by notification, specify, with different dates possible for different areas
  • C. Immediately on assent by the Governor
  • D. Exactly one year after publication
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 1(3) provides that the Act comes into force on such date as the Government may notify, and different dates may be specified for different areas.

Q4. On which date was the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 passed by the Punjab Assembly?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. 5 July 2011
  • B. 23 June 2011
  • C. 14 August 2011
  • D. 6 July 2011
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

A footnote to the Act records that it was passed by the Punjab Assembly on 23 June 2011.

Q5. On which date did the Governor of the Punjab assent to the Act?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. 6 July 2011
  • B. 5 July 2011
  • C. 23 June 2011
  • D. 30 June 2011
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

The Act records that the Governor of the Punjab assented to it on 5 July 2011, one day before its Gazette publication.

Q6. In which Gazette was the Act published, and on what date?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Punjab Gazette (Extraordinary), 6 July 2011
  • B. National Assembly Gazette, 5 July 2011
  • C. Federal Gazette, 14 August 2011
  • D. Punjab Gazette (Ordinary), 23 June 2011
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

The Act was published in the Punjab Gazette (Extraordinary), dated 6 July 2011, at pages 591 to 603.

Q7. Under Section 2, ‘adulterated food’ includes food which:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Is imported from abroad
  • B. Contains any poisonous or other ingredient that may render it injurious to human health
  • C. Is sold only in bulk
  • D. Is always more expensive than average
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(a)(v) defines adulterated food to include food containing any poisonous or other ingredient that may render it injurious to human health, among several other listed conditions.

Q8. Under Section 2, food prepared, packed or kept under unhygienic and insanitary conditions is classified as:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Safe food
  • B. Adulterated food
  • C. Misbranded food
  • D. Standard food
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(a)(vii) includes food prepared, packed or kept under unhygienic and insanitary conditions within the definition of adulterated food.

Q9. Which term is defined in Section 2 as ‘any publicity, representation or pronouncement made by any means for purposes of promoting the sale or disposal of any food’?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Advertisement
  • B. Package
  • C. Warranty
  • D. Label
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 2(b) defines ‘advertisement’ as any publicity, representation or pronouncement made by any means for the purpose of promoting the sale or disposal of food.

Q10. Under Section 2(d), a ‘consumer’ is defined as:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. A person who receives food against a consideration or otherwise, including an end user of the food
  • B. Only a registered food business owner
  • C. Only a government employee
  • D. Only a food operator
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 2(d) defines a consumer as a person who receives food against a consideration or otherwise, and includes an end user of the food.

Q11. Under Section 2(f), which of the following is explicitly included within the definition of ‘food’?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Cosmetic products
  • B. Water in any form including ice, intended for human consumption or use in preparation of food
  • C. Agricultural machinery
  • D. Prescription drugs only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(f)(v) explicitly includes water in any form, including ice, intended for human consumption or for use in the composition or preparation of food, within the definition of food.

Q12. Which of the following is explicitly excluded from the definition of ‘food’ under Section 2(f)?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Drugs
  • B. Chewing gum
  • C. Flavouring agents
  • D. Condiments
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 2(f) defines food as anything used as food or drink for human consumption ‘other than drugs’, explicitly excluding drugs, though Explanation I clarifies a thing does not cease to be food merely because it can also be used as a drug.

Q13. Under Section 2(f), Explanation II, the term ‘drugs’ takes the same meaning assigned to it in which law?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Pakistan Penal Code 1860
  • B. Punjab Land Revenue Act 1967
  • C. Code of Criminal Procedure 1898
  • D. Drugs Act 1976
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Explanation II to Section 2(f) states that ‘drugs’ has the same meaning assigned to it in the Drugs Act 1976 (XXXI of 1976).

Q14. Under Section 2(i), a ‘food business’ includes which of the following activities?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Only export
  • B. Any stage of manufacturing, processing, packaging, storage, transportation, distribution, import, export, food services or catering
  • C. Only retail sale
  • D. Only manufacturing
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(i) defines food business broadly to include any undertaking, whether or not for profit, carrying out activities across manufacturing, processing, packaging, storage, transportation, distribution, import, export, food services, catering services, or sale of food or food ingredients.

Q15. Under Section 2(r), ‘misbranded food’ includes food which:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Is always more expensive than the market rate
  • B. Is an imitation of or resembles another food in a manner likely to deceive the consumer
  • C. Has passed its expiry date only
  • D. Is sold in a different city than manufactured
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(r)(i) defines misbranded food to include food that is an imitation of, or resembles, another food in a manner likely to deceive the consumer.

Q16. Under Section 2(ra), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, ‘natural decomposition’ means:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Deliberate spoiling of food by a food operator
  • B. A licensing category
  • C. A chemical additive process
  • D. Loss of freshness, taste, fragrance or any active ingredient which is dependent on climate or weather
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 2(ra), inserted by the Punjab Food Authority (Amendment) Act 2016, defines natural decomposition as loss of freshness, taste, fragrance or any active ingredient dependent on climate or weather.

Q17. Under Section 2(z), ‘unsafe food’ is defined as food whose nature, substance or quality is so affected as to render it:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Unattractive in appearance
  • B. Injurious to human health
  • C. More expensive
  • D. Less flavourful
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(z) defines unsafe food as food whose nature, substance or quality is so affected by any means as to render it injurious to human health.

Q18. Under Section 2(t), ‘premises’ as defined in the Act includes:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Only government-owned property
  • B. Any shop, stall, hotel, restaurant, airline services, canteens, vehicle, building, tent or other structure used in connection with food
  • C. Only premises located in Lahore
  • D. Only permanent buildings
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(t) gives a broad definition of premises, including shops, stalls, hotels, restaurants, airline services, canteens, vehicles, buildings, tents or other structures used in connection with the sale, manufacture or storage of food.

Q19. Under Section 2, a ‘food operator’ is a person who:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Only owns a food business licence
  • B. Manufactures for sale, transports, stores, sells, distributes, imports or exports food
  • C. Only works as a Food Safety Officer
  • D. Only regulates food standards
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(k) defines a food operator as a person who manufactures for sale, transports, stores, sells, distributes, imports or exports food.

Q20. Under Section 2(y), ‘standard’ in relation to any article of food means:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Only standards set by the Federal Government
  • B. Only the international Codex Alimentarius standard
  • C. A standard set by individual food operators
  • D. The prescribed standard, including any standard notified by the Food Authority
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 2(y) defines standard, in relation to any article of food, as the prescribed standard, and includes the standard notified by the Food Authority.

Q21. Under Section 2(g), a ‘food additive’ is defined as a substance that:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Is not normally consumed as food by itself but whose addition to food affects its characteristics
  • B. Must always be listed as the primary ingredient
  • C. Can only be a natural extract
  • D. Is always harmful to health
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 2(g) defines a food additive as any substance not normally consumed as food by itself, or used as a typical food ingredient, but whose addition to food affects the food’s characteristics.

Q22. Under Section 2(j), a ‘food laboratory’ means any laboratory or institute that is:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Established or recognized by the Food Authority
  • B. Operated by a private university without oversight
  • C. Owned exclusively by the Federal Government
  • D. Located only within Lahore district
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 2(j) defines a food laboratory as any food laboratory or institute established or recognized by the Food Authority.

Q23. Under Section 2(n), ‘import’ under the Act means bringing food into the Punjab by which means?

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Only by air
  • B. Only through registered ports
  • C. Only by land
  • D. Land, river, canal or air, by any means
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 2(n) defines import broadly as bringing into the Punjab any article of food by any means, including land, river, canal or air.

Q24. Under Section 2(u), the term ‘prescribed’ in the Act means prescribed by:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. International food safety bodies
  • B. Only an Act of Parliament
  • C. The rules or the regulations
  • D. Verbal instruction from the Chairperson
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 2(u) defines ‘prescribed’ as meaning prescribed by the rules or the regulations made under the Act.

Q25. Under Section 2(v), a ‘public analyst’ is defined as:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Any citizen who volunteers to test food
  • B. A public analyst appointed under the Act
  • C. A journalist reporting on food safety
  • D. A member of the Provincial Assembly
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 2(v) defines a public analyst simply as a public analyst appointed under the Act, with qualifications and duties elaborated in Section 11.

Q26. Under Section 2(x), the ‘Scientific Panel’ referred to throughout the Act means the panel:

Preliminary & Definitions
  • A. Formed by private food companies independently
  • B. Formed by the Federal Government
  • C. Constituted under the Act
  • D. Appointed by the Lahore High Court
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 2(x) defines the Scientific Panel as the Scientific Panel constituted under the Act, with its composition detailed in Section 9.

Q27. Under Section 3(1), who is empowered to establish the Punjab Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. The Chief Justice of the Lahore High Court
  • B. The Government, by notification in the official Gazette
  • C. The Punjab Assembly directly
  • D. The Federal Government
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 3(1) provides that the Government may, by notification in the official Gazette, establish the Punjab Food Authority for the purposes of the Act.

Q28. Under Section 3(2), what legal status does the Food Authority hold?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. A branch of the Federal Government
  • B. A body corporate, having perpetual succession and a common seal
  • C. A private limited company
  • D. An unincorporated advisory committee
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 3(2) establishes the Food Authority as a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal, with power to contract, acquire or dispose of property, and to sue or be sued in its own name.

Q29. Under Section 4(1), which of the following is an ex-officio member of the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Federal Minister for Food Security
  • B. Vice Chancellor of any university
  • C. Chief Justice of the Lahore High Court
  • D. Secretary to the Government, Food Department
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(1)(a) names the Secretary to the Government, Food Department, as one of the ex-officio members of the Food Authority.

Q30. Under Section 4(1), how many members of the Provincial Assembly of the Punjab are nominated to the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Five
  • D. Two
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 4(1)(f) provides for three members of the Provincial Assembly of the Punjab, including at least one female member, to be nominated by the Government.

Q31. Under Section 4(1)(g), how many food technologists or scientists are nominated to the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Two
  • B. One
  • C. Four
  • D. Three
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 4(1)(g) provides for two food technologists or scientists, including at least one female scientist, to be nominated by the Government.

Q32. Under Section 4(1), how many representatives of farmers sit on the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Three
  • B. One
  • C. None
  • D. Two
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(1)(k) provides for two representatives of farmers, including at least one female representative.

Q33. Under Section 4(1), how many representatives of consumers sit on the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 4(1)(l) provides for two representatives of consumers, including at least one female consumer.

Q34. Under Section 4(3), the non-official members of the Food Authority are appointed on the recommendation of a committee convened by:

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. The Chief Secretary to the Government
  • B. The Director General of the Food Authority
  • C. The Secretary, Health Department
  • D. The Chairperson of the Food Authority
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 4(3) establishes a recommending committee for non-official members, with the Chief Secretary to the Government as Convener.

Q35. Under Section 4(3), which university’s representative sits on the committee that recommends non-official members?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. University of the Punjab, Lahore
  • B. University of Agriculture, Faisalabad (Director General, National Institute of Food Science & Technology)
  • C. Government College University
  • D. Punjab University
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 4(3)(d) includes the Director General of the National Institute of Food Science & Technology, University of Agriculture, Faisalabad, on the recommending committee.

Q36. Under Section 4(8), how often must the Food Authority meet at minimum?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Once a year
  • B. At least twice a year
  • C. Every month
  • D. At least thrice a year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(8) requires the Food Authority to meet at least thrice in a year.

Q37. Under Section 4(10), what constitutes a quorum for a meeting of the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. A simple majority of all members
  • B. One third of the total members, the fraction being counted as one
  • C. Only the Chairperson and Director General
  • D. Two thirds of the total members
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 4(10) sets the quorum at one third of the total members of the Food Authority, with any fraction counted as one.

Q38. Under Section 5(1), for how long does the Chairperson or a non-ex-officio member hold office?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Two years
  • B. Five years
  • C. Three years
  • D. One year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 5(1) provides that the Chairperson and non-ex-officio members hold office for a term of three years, and are eligible for reappointment.

Q39. Under Section 5(2), for how many terms, at most, may a person serve as Chairperson or non-ex-officio member?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Only one term
  • B. Three terms
  • C. There is no limit
  • D. Two terms, whether consecutive or otherwise
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 5(2) restricts a person from being appointed Chairperson or a non-ex-officio member for more than two terms, whether consecutive or otherwise.

Q40. Under Section 5(4), how much notice must the Chairperson or a member give to resign?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. One month’s notice in writing
  • B. One week’s notice
  • C. No notice required
  • D. Three months’ notice
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 5(4) requires the Chairperson or a member, other than an ex-officio member, to serve one month’s notice in writing to the Government in order to resign.

Q41. Under Section 6(1), which of the following is a valid ground for removing the Chairperson or a member?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Requesting a transfer
  • B. Disagreeing with a policy decision once
  • C. Taking annual leave
  • D. Being adjudged an undischarged insolvent
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 6(1)(a) lists being adjudged an undischarged insolvent as one of the grounds on which the Government may remove the Chairperson or a member.

Q42. Under Section 6(2), before removing the Chairperson or a member, the Government must:

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Consult the Federal Government
  • B. Obtain approval from the Punjab Assembly
  • C. Afford the person a reasonable opportunity of being heard
  • D. Publish the reasons in three newspapers
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 6(2) requires that the Chairperson or a member shall not be removed except after affording them a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Q43. Under Section 4(1a), inserted by the 2014 Amendment, when appointing members under clauses (h), (i) and (j), the Government must appoint:

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. At least one female belonging to any of those categories
  • B. Members only from Lahore
  • C. Only male representatives
  • D. Only retired civil servants
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 4(1a), inserted by the Punjab Fair Representation of Women Act 2014, requires the Government to appoint at least one female among the members nominated under clauses (h), (i) and (j) of Section 4(1).

Q44. Under Section 4(4), the Food Authority may co-opt any other person as a member with:

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Approval of the Lahore High Court
  • B. Approval of the Federal Cabinet
  • C. No approval needed
  • D. The prior approval of the Government
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(4) allows the Food Authority to co-opt any other person as a member, but only with the prior approval of the Government.

Q45. Under Section 4(5), appointments to the Food Authority (other than ex-officio members) must ensure:

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Only professional competence, with no other consideration
  • B. Preference for candidates from a single district
  • C. Seniority alone, regardless of qualification
  • D. The highest standards of professional competence and experience, gender balance and equitable geographic distribution
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(5) requires that appointments ensure the highest standards of professional competence and experience, along with gender balance and equitable geographic distribution within the Province.

Q46. Under Section 4(7), who is responsible for calling a meeting of the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. The Government directly
  • B. Any member, at their own discretion
  • C. The Lahore High Court
  • D. The Secretary of the Food Authority, on the direction of the Chairperson
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(7) provides that the Secretary of the Food Authority shall call a meeting on the direction of the Chairperson.

Q47. Under Section 4(9), in the Chairperson’s absence, who presides at a meeting of the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. The Director General automatically
  • B. No meeting can proceed without the Chairperson
  • C. The senior-most ex-officio member by default
  • D. Any other member elected by the members present
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(9) provides that in the Chairperson’s absence, any other member elected by the members present at the meeting shall preside.

Q48. Under Section 4(1), which of the following ex-officio members sits on the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Secretary to the Government, Finance Department
  • B. Secretary to the Government, Education Department
  • C. Secretary to the Government, Information Department
  • D. Secretary to the Government, Livestock & Dairy Development Department
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 4(1)(d) names the Secretary to the Government, Livestock & Dairy Development Department, as one of the ex-officio members of the Food Authority.

Q49. Under Section 4(1), which department’s Secretary is also an ex-officio member of the Food Authority, alongside Food, Health, and Livestock & Dairy Development?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Public Health Engineering Department
  • B. Communication and Works Department
  • C. Board of Revenue
  • D. Excise and Taxation Department
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 4(1)(c) names the Secretary to the Government, Public Health Engineering Department, as an ex-officio member.

Q50. Under Section 4(1)(e), which department’s Secretary also sits as an ex-officio member of the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Local Government & Community Development Department
  • B. Environment Department
  • C. Planning and Development Department
  • D. Industries Department
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 4(1)(e) names the Secretary to the Government, Local Government & Community Development Department, as an ex-officio member.

Q51. Under Section 4(1)(h), which representative body has a seat on the Food Authority?

Establishment & Composition of the Food Authority
  • A. Chambers of Commerce & Industry
  • B. The Medical Association
  • C. The Press Club
  • D. The Bar Council
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 4(1)(h) provides for one representative of the Chambers of Commerce & Industry to sit on the Food Authority.

Q52. Under Section 7(1), the primary function of the Food Authority is to:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Collect land revenue
  • B. Issue driving licences
  • C. Manage provincial hospitals
  • D. Regulate and monitor the food business in order to ensure provision of safe food
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 7(1) states that the Food Authority shall regulate and monitor the food business in order to ensure the provision of safe food.

Q53. Under Section 7(2), which of the following is a specific power of the Food Authority?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Levy fee for registration, licensing and other services
  • B. Appoint the Chief Minister
  • C. Amend the Constitution
  • D. Set the provincial budget
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 7(2)(k) empowers the Food Authority to levy fees for registration, licensing and other services.

Q54. Under Section 7(2)(l), the Food Authority may:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Regulate stock exchanges
  • B. Certify food for export
  • C. Issue passports
  • D. Print currency
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 7(2)(l) empowers the Food Authority to certify food for export.

Q55. Under Section 7(3), the Food Authority is required to exercise its functions, as far as possible, in accordance with:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Instructions from food operators
  • B. Well established scientific principles and international best practices
  • C. Media reports
  • D. Only domestic commercial interests
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 7(3) requires the Food Authority to exercise its functions, as far as possible, in accordance with well established scientific principles and international best practices.

Q56. Under Section 8, the proceedings of the Food Authority cannot be invalidated merely on the ground of:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. A change in government
  • B. Budget shortfall
  • C. Existence of any vacancy or defect in the constitution of the Food Authority
  • D. Public criticism
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 8 provides that no act or proceeding of the Food Authority shall be questioned or invalidated merely on the ground of the existence of a vacancy or defect in its constitution.

Q57. Section 8A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, empowers the Food Authority to:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Issue passports to food operators
  • B. Categorize premises based on prescribed objective criteria and level of adherence to standards
  • C. Close all food businesses permanently
  • D. Set national tax policy
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 8A(1), inserted by the Punjab Food Authority (Amendment) Act 2016, empowers the Food Authority to categorize premises based on prescribed objective criteria, established scientific principles and international best practices.

Q58. Under Section 8A(4), a food operator aggrieved by the categorization of premises may appeal within how many days?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Thirty days
  • B. Ninety days
  • C. Sixty days
  • D. Fifteen days
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 8A(4) allows a food operator aggrieved by a categorization decision to prefer an appeal to the Appellate Authority within sixty days of the decision.

Q59. Under Section 9(1), who convenes the Scientific Panel established by the Food Authority?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. A representative of the food industry
  • B. The Chairperson of the Food Authority
  • C. The Director General of the Food Authority
  • D. The Secretary, Health Department
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 9(1)(a) designates the Director General of the Food Authority as the Convener of a Scientific Panel.

Q60. Under Section 9(1), how many representatives of food manufacturers sit on a Scientific Panel?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Five
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 9(1)(g) provides for three representatives of food manufacturers in the relevant field to sit on a Scientific Panel.

Q61. Under Section 9(1)(f), a Scientific Panel must include a medical practitioner registered with:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. The Pakistan Engineering Council
  • B. The Pakistan Bar Council
  • C. Pakistan Medical and Dental Council
  • D. Provincial Assembly of the Punjab
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 9(1)(f) requires a Scientific Panel to include a medical practitioner registered with the Pakistan Medical and Dental Council.

Q62. Under Section 10(2), the Director General of the Food Authority holds office:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. During the pleasure of the Food Authority
  • B. For a fixed term of five years
  • C. For life
  • D. Only until the next election
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 10(2) provides that the Director General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Food Authority.

Q63. Under Section 10(3), the Director General also serves as:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. The Chief Justice of the Special Court
  • B. The Chairperson of the Food Authority
  • C. A member of the Provincial Assembly
  • D. The Secretary of the Food Authority
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 10(3) states that the Director General shall be the Secretary of the Food Authority.

Q64. Under Section 10(6), the Director General may also exercise the powers of:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. A member of the Provincial Assembly
  • B. The Auditor General
  • C. A Special Court judge
  • D. A Food Safety Officer under the Act
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 10(6) provides that the Director General may exercise the powers of a Food Safety Officer under the Act.

Q65. Under Section 11(3), the production of a certificate under the hand of a public analyst is, until the contrary is proved:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Automatically overturned on appeal
  • B. Only advisory in nature
  • C. Legally irrelevant
  • D. Sufficient proof of the facts contained in the certificate
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 11(3) provides that a certificate under the hand of a public analyst is, until the contrary is proved, sufficient proof of the facts it contains, when produced at trial.

Q66. Under Section 11(5), who ordinarily bears the cost of analysis when an accused requests that a food sample be sent to a public analyst?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. The public analyst personally
  • B. The Food Authority always
  • C. The complainant consumer
  • D. The accused, unless the Court directs otherwise
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 11(5) provides that, unless the Court directs otherwise, the accused on whose request a sample is sent for analysis shall bear the cost.

Q67. Under Section 12(3), the Food Authority may confer the powers of a Food Safety Officer on:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Any private citizen without qualification
  • B. A Government servant, in the public interest, notwithstanding the prescribed qualification requirement
  • C. Only members of the Provincial Assembly
  • D. Only retired judges
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 12(3) allows the Food Authority, in the public interest, to confer the powers of a Food Safety Officer on a Government servant, notwithstanding the qualification requirement in subsection (2).

Q68. Under Section 13(1), which of the following is a power explicitly granted to a Food Safety Officer?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Appointing the Chairperson
  • B. Amending the Act itself
  • C. Taking a sample of any food or substance that appears intended for sale or has been sold as food
  • D. Setting the annual national budget
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 13(1)(a) empowers a Food Safety Officer to take a sample of any food or substance that appears to be intended for sale, or that has been sold as food.

Q69. Under Section 13(1)(ca), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, a Food Safety Officer may impose a fine on a food operator if:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. He decides to do so at his sole and unrestricted discretion
  • B. The food operator requests it
  • C. The Food Authority has delegated such power to him
  • D. A court order specifically requires it
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 13(1)(ca), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, allows a Food Safety Officer to impose a fine on a food operator only if the Food Authority has delegated such power to him.

Q70. Under Section 13(3), a person claiming back anything seized by a Food Safety Officer must apply to the Court within how many days of the seizure?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Fifteen days
  • B. Three days
  • C. Seven days
  • D. Thirty days
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 13(3) allows a person to apply to the Court within seven days of the seizure to claim back the seized item.

Q71. Under Section 13(5), what happens to seized food, apparatus or utensils if no application is made within the prescribed period?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. It reverts to the Government treasury
  • B. It is destroyed immediately without any process
  • C. It is returned automatically to the owner
  • D. It is forfeited to the Food Authority
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 13(5) provides that if no application is made within seven days under subsection (3), the seized item shall be forfeited to the Food Authority.

Q72. Under Section 7(2)(a), the Food Authority may formulate standards, procedures and guidelines relating to:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Only food exported outside Punjab
  • B. Only food sold in five-star hotels
  • C. Any aspect of food including food business, food labelling and food additives
  • D. Only food imported from abroad
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 7(2)(a) empowers the Food Authority to formulate standards, procedures, processes and guidelines relating to any aspect of food, including food business, food labelling and food additives.

Q73. Under Section 7(2)(h), the Food Authority may establish a system to:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Network food operators and consumers to facilitate food safety and quality control
  • B. Eliminate all small food businesses
  • C. Replace the Food Department entirely
  • D. Directly manage grocery store pricing
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 7(2)(h) empowers the Food Authority to establish a system or network of food operators and consumers to facilitate food safety and quality control.

Q74. Under Section 7(2)(i), the Food Authority is empowered to:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Issue university degrees
  • B. Appoint judges
  • C. Set university curricula
  • D. Organize training programmes in food safety and standards
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 7(2)(i) empowers the Food Authority to organize training programmes in food safety and standards.

Q75. Under Section 9(3), who determines the terms and conditions, including tenure, of Scientific Panel members other than ex-officio members?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. The Federal Government
  • B. The Lahore High Court
  • C. The Food Authority
  • D. The Provincial Assembly
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 9(3) empowers the Food Authority to determine the terms and conditions, including tenure, of Scientific Panel members other than ex-officio members.

Q76. Under Section 9(6), if the Food Authority disagrees with a Scientific Panel’s recommendation, it may:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Ignore the Panel entirely with no further process
  • B. Appeal to the Lahore High Court
  • C. Refer the case back to the Scientific Panel, with reasons, for reconsideration
  • D. Dissolve the Scientific Panel immediately
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 9(6) allows the Food Authority, if it disagrees with a recommendation, to refer the matter back to the Scientific Panel with reasons for reconsideration.

Q77. Under Section 13(1)(f), a Food Safety Officer may demand production of which of the following from a food operator?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Only their national identity card
  • B. The identity card, business registration certificate, licence or other relevant document
  • C. Only their bank statements
  • D. Only their educational certificates
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 13(1)(f) empowers a Food Safety Officer to demand production of the identity card, business registration certificate, licence, or other relevant document from a food operator.

Q78. Under Section 13(1)(h), a Food Safety Officer’s powers explicitly extend to:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Setting food prices
  • B. Searching and seizing any vehicle carrying food
  • C. Only inspecting fixed premises, never vehicles
  • D. Arresting any citizen without cause
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 13(1)(h) explicitly empowers a Food Safety Officer to search and seize any vehicle carrying food.

Q79. Under Section 13(6), any person may apply in writing to a Food Safety Officer requesting that he:

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. Waive all licensing fees
  • B. Issue a business loan
  • C. Shut down a competitor’s business
  • D. Purchase a sample of food from a food operator and have it analyzed by the public analyst
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 13(6) allows any person to apply in writing asking the Food Safety Officer to purchase a food sample from an operator and have it analyzed by the public analyst.

Q80. Under Section 14, who determines the number, categories, rank and terms of service of other employees of the Food Authority?

Powers, Functions & Officers
  • A. The Punjab Assembly directly
  • B. The Lahore High Court
  • C. The Federal Public Service Commission
  • D. The Food Authority itself
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 14 empowers the Food Authority to determine the number, categories, rank and terms and conditions of its other employees.

Q81. Under Section 15(1), a person shall not use any place for food business except under:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Verbal permission from a local elder
  • B. No requirement exists
  • C. A federal government NOC only
  • D. The prescribed registration or licence
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 15(1) provides that a person shall not use any place for food business except under the prescribed registration or licence.

Q82. Under Section 16(1), an improvement notice served by a Food Safety Officer must state:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Only the licence number
  • B. Only the fine amount
  • C. Only the food operator’s name
  • D. The grounds for believing non-compliance, the matters constituting the failure, and the measures needed for compliance
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 16(1) requires an improvement notice to state the grounds for believing non-compliance, specify the matters constituting the failure, and intimate the measures needed to secure compliance.

Q83. Under Section 16(2), if a food operator fails to comply with an improvement notice within the prescribed time, the Food Authority may:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Refer the matter to the Federal Government
  • B. Take no further action
  • C. Only issue a warning letter
  • D. Cancel or suspend the licence or take such other action as it deems appropriate
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 16(2) allows the Food Authority to cancel or suspend the licence, or take other appropriate action, if the food operator fails to comply with an improvement notice within the prescribed time.

Q84. Under Section 17, a prohibition order under this section may be imposed by:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. The Court, upon conviction of an offence and being satisfied a health risk exists
  • B. The Chairperson without any hearing
  • C. The Food Safety Officer directly
  • D. The consumer directly
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 17 provides that upon conviction and where the Court is satisfied that a health risk exists, the Court may impose a prohibition on use of a process, premises or equipment, or on operating the food business.

Q85. Under Section 18(2), within how many hours must a Food Safety Officer report an emergency prohibition action to the Food Authority?

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Twelve hours
  • B. Forty-eight hours
  • C. Twenty-four hours
  • D. Six hours
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 18(2) requires the Food Safety Officer to report an emergency prohibition action to the Food Authority within twenty-four hours of taking it.

Q86. Under Section 19, the Food Authority may require which professionals to report occurrences of food poisoning?

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Civil engineers
  • B. Bankers
  • C. Lawyers
  • D. Medical practitioners
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 19 empowers the Food Authority to require medical practitioners in a local area to report all occurrences of food poisoning to the Food Safety Officer or the Food Authority.

Q87. Under Section 20(1), who has the power to order immediate withdrawal of non-compliant food from the market?

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Any consumer
  • B. The Chairperson of the Provincial Assembly
  • C. The Director General, after recording reasons
  • D. A Food Safety Officer without any recorded reason
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 20(1) empowers the Director General, after recording reasons, to order immediate withdrawal of non-compliant food from the market.

Q88. Under Section 20(2), a person aggrieved by a food recall order may:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Prefer an appeal to the Food Authority in the prescribed manner
  • B. Take no legal action at all
  • C. Only approach the High Court directly
  • D. Only file a police complaint
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 20(2) allows a person aggrieved by a food recall action under Section 20 to prefer an appeal to the Food Authority in the prescribed manner.

Q89. Under Section 21, the Food Authority may establish or recognize:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Only agricultural universities
  • B. A food laboratory for analysis of food samples, equipment or utensils
  • C. Only federal government hospitals
  • D. Only private banks
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 21 empowers the Food Authority to establish, recognize or accredit a food laboratory for carrying out analysis of samples of food or related equipment or utensils.

Q90. Under Section 15(2), the Food Authority may, in the prescribed manner:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Exempt a class of food operators from compulsory registration or licence
  • B. Never exempt any operator from licensing
  • C. Transfer licensing power to district courts
  • D. Grant permanent exemption to all operators automatically
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 15(2) allows the Food Authority to exempt a class of food operators from the requirement of compulsory registration or licence, in the prescribed manner.

Q91. Under Section 18(1), before restraining a food operator under an emergency prohibition, the Food Safety Officer must:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Obtain prior approval from the Lahore High Court
  • B. Take no procedural steps at all
  • C. Serve a notice on the food operator and record reasons in writing
  • D. Wait thirty days before acting
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 18(1) requires the Food Safety Officer to serve a notice on the food operator and record reasons in writing before restraining the food business under an emergency prohibition.

Q92. Under Section 18(2), after confirming, modifying or setting aside an emergency prohibition order, the Food Authority must first:

Enforcement Mechanism
  • A. Serve a notice on the food operator and record reasons in writing
  • B. Consult the Federal Government
  • C. Take no further action
  • D. Publish the decision nationally
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 18(2) requires the Food Authority to serve a notice on the food operator and record reasons in writing before confirming, modifying or setting aside the Food Safety Officer’s emergency order.

Q93. Under Section 22(1), as amended in 2016, selling adulterated food carries a minimum imprisonment of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. No minimum, up to six months
  • B. Six months, extending to one year
  • C. One month, extending to six months
  • D. Three months, extending to one year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 22(1), substituted by the 2016 Amendment, prescribes imprisonment which may extend to six months but shall not be less than one month.

Q94. Under Section 22(1), as amended in 2016, the minimum fine for selling adulterated food is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. One million rupees
  • B. Ten thousand rupees
  • C. One hundred thousand rupees
  • D. Five hundred thousand rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 22(1), as amended in 2016, prescribes a fine which may extend to one million rupees but shall not be less than one hundred thousand rupees.

Q95. Under Section 22(2), the offence under Section 22(1) does not apply to a person who sells non-processed food unfit for consumption due to:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Import restrictions
  • B. Government seizure
  • C. Deliberate contamination
  • D. Natural decomposition
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 22(2) exempts from Section 22(1) a person who sells non-processed food unfit for human consumption by way of natural decomposition, as defined in Section 2(ra).

Q96. Section 22A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, specifically targets:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Large scale manufacturers dealing in adulterated food in quantities equal to or exceeding the Schedule limits
  • B. Only government canteens
  • C. First-time small vendors
  • D. Only imported food
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 22A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, applies to a food operator who manufactures, keeps, transports, imports or exports adulterated food in quantities at or above those specified in the Schedule to the Act.

Q97. Under Section 22A, the maximum term of imprisonment for the large-scale manufacturer offence is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Three years
  • B. Five years
  • C. One year
  • D. Ten years
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 22A prescribes imprisonment which may extend to five years but shall not be less than six months, for the large-scale manufacturer offence.

Q98. Under Section 22A, the minimum fine for the large-scale manufacturer offence is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. One million rupees
  • B. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • C. Two million rupees
  • D. One hundred thousand rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 22A prescribes a fine which may extend to two million rupees but shall not be less than five hundred thousand rupees.

Q99. Under the Schedule to the Act (referenced in Section 22A), the threshold quantity for milk is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 100 litres
  • B. 1000 litres
  • C. 500 litres
  • D. 2000 litres
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Schedule to the Act, appended under Section 22A, specifies 500 litres of milk as the threshold quantity triggering the large-scale manufacturer offence.

Q100. Under the Schedule to the Act, the threshold quantity for meat and poultry is generally:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 500 kg
  • B. 50 kg
  • C. 100 kg
  • D. 200 kg
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The Schedule sets a general threshold of 200 kilograms for meat and poultry, though a lower 20 kg threshold applies where Section 2(a)(i) is specifically attracted.

Q101. Under Section 23, as amended in 2016, the offence of substandard or misbranded food carries the same penalty range as which other section?

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Section 35
  • B. Section 46
  • C. Section 27
  • D. Section 22 (selling adulterated food)
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 23, as substituted by the 2016 Amendment, mirrors the penalty structure of Section 22: imprisonment of one month to six months and a fine of one hundred thousand to one million rupees.

Q102. Under Section 24, as amended in 2016, if unsafe food results in the death of a person, the minimum term of imprisonment is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Twenty years
  • B. Ten years
  • C. Three years
  • D. One year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 24(c), as amended in 2016, prescribes imprisonment extending to life but not less than ten years, where unsafe food results in the death of a person.

Q103. Under Section 24(c), as amended in 2016, the minimum fine where unsafe food causes death is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Two million rupees
  • B. Three million rupees
  • C. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • D. One million rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 24(c), as amended in 2016, prescribes a fine extending to three million rupees but not less than two million rupees, where unsafe food results in death.

Q104. Under Section 24(b), where unsafe food results in injury (but not death), the maximum term of imprisonment is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Six months
  • B. Five years
  • C. One year
  • D. Three years
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 24(b), as amended in 2016, prescribes imprisonment which may extend to three years but shall not be less than three months, where unsafe food causes injury.

Q105. Under Section 25(1), false advertisement of food, as amended in 2016, carries a fine which may extend to:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Two million rupees
  • B. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • C. One million rupees
  • D. Five million rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 25(1), as amended in 2016, prescribes a fine which may extend to two million rupees but shall not be less than one million rupees.

Q106. Under Section 26, false labeling of food, as amended in 2016, carries imprisonment of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Life imprisonment
  • B. Up to five years
  • C. Up to one year but not less than six months
  • D. Up to three months only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 26, as amended in 2016, prescribes imprisonment which may extend to one year but shall not be less than six months, for false labeling.

Q107. Under Section 27, failure to comply with directions issued by the Food Authority or a Food Safety Officer, without reasonable cause, carries a maximum imprisonment of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. One month
  • B. Six months
  • C. Three months
  • D. One year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 27 prescribes imprisonment which may extend to three months and a fine which may extend to five hundred thousand rupees, for failure to comply with directions without reasonable cause.

Q108. Under Section 28, as amended in 2016, manufacturing or keeping food under unhygienic conditions carries a minimum imprisonment of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Three days
  • B. One month
  • C. No minimum
  • D. Six months
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 28, as amended in 2016, prescribes imprisonment which may extend to six months but shall not be less than three days, for unhygienic or unsanitary conditions.

Q109. Under Section 29, the penalty for a prescribed offence with no specific penalty stated elsewhere in the Act is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Only a verbal warning
  • B. No penalty applies
  • C. Imprisonment up to three months and fine up to five hundred thousand rupees
  • D. Automatically the maximum penalty under Section 24
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 29 provides a default penalty of imprisonment up to three months and a fine up to five hundred thousand rupees, for offences prescribed under the rules that have no specific penalty elsewhere in the Act.

Q110. Under Section 30, providing false or misleading information to the Food Authority or a Food Safety Officer carries a maximum imprisonment of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Six months
  • B. Three months
  • C. One year
  • D. Two years
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 30 prescribes imprisonment which may extend to six months and a fine which may extend to five hundred thousand rupees, for providing false or misleading information.

Q111. Under Section 31(1), obstructing a Food Safety Officer in the performance of duties carries imprisonment up to six months, fine up to five hundred thousand rupees, or:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Both cannot be combined under any circumstance
  • B. Community service
  • C. Neither, only a warning
  • D. Both together
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 31(1) prescribes imprisonment which may extend to six months, or fine which may extend to five hundred thousand rupees, or both.

Q112. Under Section 32, as amended in 2016, operating a food business without the prescribed registration or licence carries a maximum imprisonment of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Two years
  • B. Three days
  • C. One year
  • D. Six months
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 32, as amended in 2016, prescribes imprisonment which may extend to one year but shall not be less than three days, for operating without a licence.

Q113. Under Section 32, as amended in 2016, the minimum fine for operating a food business without a licence is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Fifty thousand rupees
  • B. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • C. One hundred thousand rupees
  • D. Ten thousand rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 32, as amended in 2016, prescribes a fine which may extend to five hundred thousand rupees but shall not be less than ten thousand rupees.

Q114. Under Section 33(1), a manufacturer, distributor or dealer must not sell prescribed food to a food vendor unless they provide:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. A written warranty or other written statement of compliance with the Act
  • B. A verbal assurance only
  • C. A notarized affidavit
  • D. A bank guarantee
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 33(1) requires a written warranty or written statement that the food complies with the Act, rules and regulations, before selling prescribed food to a food vendor.

Q115. Under Section 34(1), if a person commits a subsequent offence after a previous conviction under the Act, the punishment is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Twice the imprisonment and fine provided for the offence, plus a further fine up to two hundred thousand rupees
  • B. Reduced due to prior payment of fines
  • C. The same as the first offence
  • D. Limited to a warning only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 34(1) prescribes double the imprisonment and fine otherwise provided for the offence, plus a further fine which may extend to two hundred thousand rupees, for a subsequent offence.

Q116. Under Section 34(2), what happens to the licence of a food operator convicted of a subsequent offence?

Offences & Penalties
  • A. It is transferred to another operator
  • B. It is only suspended for one month
  • C. It remains valid
  • D. It is cancelled
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 34(2) provides that the licence of a food operator convicted of a subsequent offence under Section 34(1) shall be cancelled.

Q117. Under Section 35(1)(a), the minimum compensation payable to legal heirs in case of a consumer’s death due to unsafe food is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Two hundred thousand rupees
  • B. Two million rupees
  • C. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • D. One million rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 35(1)(a) mandates compensation not less than one million rupees in case of death of a consumer due to unsafe food.

Q118. Under Section 35(1)(b), the maximum compensation payable to a consumer in case of injury (not death) due to unsafe food is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • B. One million rupees
  • C. Two hundred thousand rupees
  • D. Two million rupees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 35(1)(b) sets compensation not exceeding five hundred thousand rupees in case of injury to a consumer due to unsafe food.

Q119. Under Section 35(2), if a food operator fails to pay ordered compensation, the Food Authority shall recover it as:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. A criminal fine paid to the federal treasury
  • B. A civil debt only, through separate litigation
  • C. Arrears of land revenue
  • D. Unrecoverable
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 35(2) provides that if the food operator fails to pay compensation, the Food Authority shall recover it as arrears of land revenue.

Q120. Under Section 36, upon a conviction, the Court may direct that food, equipment, machinery or vehicle related to the conviction be:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Sold at public auction to the highest bidder
  • B. Donated to charity automatically
  • C. Confiscated and vested in the Food Authority
  • D. Returned to the owner immediately
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 36 empowers the Court, upon conviction, to direct that the relevant food, equipment, machinery, vehicle or other thing be confiscated and vest in the Food Authority.

Q121. Under Section 37(1), where an offence is committed by a company, who is liable along with the company?

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Only the company’s auditor
  • B. Only shareholders
  • C. No individual, only the company
  • D. Every person in charge of the company at the time of the offence
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 37(1) makes every person who, at the time of the offence, was in charge of the company liable to punishment along with the company.

Q122. Under Section 38, if a person is convicted and the Court so directs, the Food Authority shall:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Refund all fines collected
  • B. Destroy all records of the case
  • C. Release the convict immediately
  • D. Publish the convict’s name, business details, offence and penalty in newspapers or other media
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 38 requires the Food Authority, if directed by the Court, to publish the convicted person’s name, business details, the nature of the offence, and the penalty imposed, in newspapers or other media, at the convict’s cost.

Q123. Under the Schedule to the Act, the threshold quantity for tea, triggering the large-scale manufacturer offence under Section 22A, is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 500 kg
  • B. 250 kg
  • C. 1000 kg
  • D. 100 kg
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

The Schedule specifies 250 kilograms of tea as the threshold quantity for the large-scale manufacturer offence under Section 22A.

Q124. Under the Schedule to the Act, the threshold quantity for edible oils and fats is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 2000 litres
  • B. 500 litres
  • C. 1000 litres
  • D. 250 litres
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Schedule specifies 1000 litres of edible oils and fats as the threshold quantity under Section 22A.

Q125. Under the Schedule to the Act, the threshold quantity for atta, maida, suji and basin (flour products) is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 500 kg
  • B. 1000 kg
  • C. 2000 kg
  • D. 250 kg
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

The Schedule specifies 1000 kilograms for atta, maida, suji and basin as the threshold quantity under Section 22A.

Q126. Under the Schedule to the Act, the threshold quantity for baby foods is notably lower than most categories, set at:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 100 kg
  • B. 50 kg
  • C. 250 kg
  • D. 500 kg
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

The Schedule sets a threshold of 100 kilograms for baby foods, one of the lowest thresholds in the Schedule, reflecting the sensitivity of this food category.

Q127. Under the Schedule to the Act, the threshold quantity for prepared food is:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 250 kg
  • B. 1000 kg
  • C. 100 kg
  • D. 500 kg
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Schedule specifies 100 kilograms for prepared food as the threshold quantity triggering the large-scale manufacturer offence.

Q128. Under the Schedule to the Act, which food category shares the same 250 kg threshold as tea?

Offences & Penalties
  • A. Vegetables & Fruits
  • B. Meat & Poultry
  • C. Milk
  • D. Confectionary
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

The Schedule lists confectionary at a 250 kilogram threshold, the same figure specified for tea.

Q129. Under the Schedule to the Act, any food article not specifically listed elsewhere in the Schedule carries a default threshold of:

Offences & Penalties
  • A. 250 kg
  • B. 500 kg
  • C. 100 kg
  • D. 1000 kg
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

The Schedule’s final entry, ‘Foods not specified’, sets a default threshold of 250 kilograms for any food article not separately listed.

Q130. Under Section 39(1), as amended in 2016, on receiving information of an offence, the Food Authority may impose a fine on a food operator up to:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Five hundred thousand rupees
  • B. One million rupees
  • C. Two million rupees
  • D. No limit is specified
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 39(1)(d), as substituted by the 2016 Amendment, allows the Food Authority to impose a fine on a food operator which may extend to one million rupees.

Q131. Under Section 39(2), a food operator aggrieved by a licence cancellation or fine may appeal to the Appellate Authority within:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Fifteen days
  • B. Seven days
  • C. Sixty days
  • D. Thirty days
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 39(2) allows a food operator to appeal against a licence cancellation or fine to the Appellate Authority within fifteen days of communication of the order.

Q132. Under Section 39(4), an order suspending a licence shall not be passed for a period exceeding how many days at a time?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Seven days
  • B. Three days
  • C. Fifteen days
  • D. Thirty days
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 39(4) provides that a licence suspension order shall not exceed seven days at a time, and shall lapse on the thirtieth day from the first such order unless withdrawn or the licence is cancelled.

Q133. Under Section 40(1), as amended in 2016, offences under the Act are exclusively triable by:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Any Magistrate of the First Class
  • B. The Supreme Court of Pakistan
  • C. The Lahore High Court directly
  • D. The Special Court established by the Government
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 40(1), as substituted by the 2016 Amendment, makes offences under the Act exclusively triable by the Special Court established by the Government.

Q134. Under Section 40(2), as amended in 2016, a Special Court consists of:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. A jury of twelve members
  • B. A presiding officer and two technical members
  • C. Three presiding officers
  • D. Only a presiding officer
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 40(2), as amended in 2016, provides that a Special Court shall consist of a presiding officer and two technical members.

Q135. Under Section 40(4), a person may be appointed presiding officer of a Special Court if they have at least how many years’ experience as a Magistrate First Class?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Seven years
  • B. Three years
  • C. Five years
  • D. Ten years
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 40(4)(a), as amended in 2016, allows appointment of a presiding officer with not less than five years’ experience as a Magistrate First Class.

Q136. Under Section 40(4)(b), a presiding officer may alternatively qualify with how many years’ experience as a prosecutor, law officer or advocate?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Ten years
  • B. Five years
  • C. Fifteen years
  • D. Seven years
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 40(4)(b) allows qualification through not less than ten years’ experience as a prosecutor, law officer or advocate.

Q137. Under Section 40(3), the Government sends a panel of candidates for presiding officer to which authority for recommendation?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. The Chief Justice of the Lahore High Court
  • B. The Chief Election Commissioner
  • C. The Chief Secretary
  • D. The Advocate General Punjab
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 40(3) requires the Government to send a panel of two or more persons to the Chief Justice of the Lahore High Court, who recommends a person for appointment as presiding officer.

Q138. Under Section 40(6), the quorum for a sitting of a Special Court is:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Any two of the three members regardless of role
  • B. Only the presiding officer alone
  • C. The presiding officer and at least one technical member
  • D. Both technical members without the presiding officer
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 40(6) sets the quorum as the presiding officer and at least one technical member.

Q139. Under Section 41(1), as amended in 2016, offences under the Act are classified as:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Only triable by private complaint
  • B. Cognizable, on information to the officer in charge of a police station by an authorized officer
  • C. Non-cognizable only
  • D. Exempt from police involvement entirely
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 41(1), as amended in 2016, makes offences cognizable on information provided to the police station officer in charge by an officer authorized by the Food Authority, or via complaint through the public prosecutor.

Q140. Under Section 41(4), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, which offences are classified as non-bailable?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Only licensing offences under Section 15
  • B. Section 22A and clauses (b) and (c) of Section 24
  • C. All offences under the Act without exception
  • D. Only Section 27 offences
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 41(4), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, makes offences under Section 22A and clauses (b) and (c) of Section 24 non-bailable.

Q141. Under Section 42, prosecution for an offence under the Act is barred after the expiry of three years from the offence, or how long from its discovery by the complainant, whichever is earlier?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Six months
  • B. Three years
  • C. Two years
  • D. One year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 42 sets a limitation period of three years from the date of the offence, or one year from its discovery by the complainant, whichever is earlier.

Q142. Under Section 43(1), as amended in 2016, a Special Court trying an offence summarily may impose imprisonment not exceeding:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Three months
  • B. Six months
  • C. Three years
  • D. One year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 43(1), as amended in 2016, allows a Special Court to summarily impose imprisonment not exceeding six months or a fine not exceeding one million rupees.

Q143. Under Section 44, what defence is available to a person accused of an offence under the Act?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Financial hardship
  • B. Ignorance of the law
  • C. Proof that all reasonable precautions and due diligence were exercised to prevent the offence
  • D. First-time offender status alone
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 44 provides that exercising due care and caution is a valid defence, if it is proved that reasonable precautions and due diligence were exercised to prevent the offence.

Q144. Under Section 45(1), for recovering fines as arrears of land revenue, the Food Authority authorizes an officer to exercise the powers of a Collector under which law?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. The Drugs Act 1976
  • B. The Code of Criminal Procedure 1898
  • C. The Punjab Land Revenue Act 1967
  • D. The Pakistan Penal Code 1860
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 45(1) authorizes an officer to exercise the powers of a Collector under the Punjab Land Revenue Act 1967 (XVII of 1967) for recovering fines as arrears of land revenue.

Q145. Under Section 45A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, an appeal against a final order of the Special Court must be filed to the Lahore High Court within:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Fifteen days
  • B. Thirty days
  • C. Sixty days
  • D. Ninety days
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 45A(1), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, allows an appeal to the Lahore High Court within thirty days from the date of communication of the order.

Q146. Under Section 45B, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, cases pending in other courts before establishment of a Special Court shall:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Stand transferred to the Special Court with jurisdiction to try the case
  • B. Require the complainant to refile from scratch
  • C. Be dismissed entirely
  • D. Remain with the original court permanently
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 45B(1), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, provides that pending cases within a Special Court’s jurisdiction shall stand transferred to that Special Court.

Q147. Under Section 39(1)(a), as amended in 2016, on receiving information, the Food Authority may, for recorded reasons:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Immediately close the food business without any process
  • B. Register information of an offence under the Act
  • C. Only impose a fine, with no other option
  • D. Only refer the matter to the Federal Government
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 39(1)(a), as substituted by the 2016 Amendment, allows the Food Authority to register information of an offence under the Act, among other listed actions.

Q148. Under Section 39(1)(e), as amended in 2016, the Food Authority may direct destruction of adulterated or unsafe food:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. In the prescribed manner, upon recorded reasons
  • B. Only after a full trial concludes
  • C. Never, as destruction requires a court order in all cases
  • D. Only with Federal Government approval
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 39(1)(e), as amended in 2016, allows the Food Authority, for reasons to be recorded in writing, to direct destruction of adulterated or unsafe food in the prescribed manner.

Q149. Under Section 39(3), before passing an order of licence suspension, cancellation or fine, the Food Authority or Appellate Authority must:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Act immediately without any hearing
  • B. Obtain approval from the Provincial Assembly
  • C. Provide an opportunity of hearing to the food operator
  • D. Consult the Lahore High Court first
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 39(3) requires that no order relating to suspension, cancellation of licence, or imposition of fine be passed without providing the food operator an opportunity of hearing.

Q150. Under Section 41(2), if an offence causes death or injury, who may also file a complaint in the Special Court?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. No one other than the Food Authority
  • B. Only the Food Authority
  • C. The aggrieved person, under Chapter XVI of the Code
  • D. Only a Food Safety Officer
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 41(2) allows the aggrieved person to also file a complaint in the Special Court under Chapter XVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure, in addition to action by the Food Authority.

Q151. Under Section 41(3), the Government constitutes a standing investigation team for an area consisting of:

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. Only police officers
  • B. Only members of the Provincial Assembly
  • C. A police officer and a Food Safety Officer
  • D. Only Food Safety Officers
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 41(3) requires the Government to constitute, by notification, a standing investigation team consisting of a police officer and a Food Safety Officer for each area.

Q152. Under Section 45B(2), which court may transfer a case from one Special Court to another, or to or from any other court?

Jurisdiction & Procedure
  • A. The Lahore High Court
  • B. The Food Authority itself
  • C. The Supreme Court of Pakistan only
  • D. A Magistrate of the First Class
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 45B(2) empowers the Lahore High Court to transfer a case from one Special Court to another, or between a Special Court and any other court.

Q153. Under Section 46(1), the fund administered by the Food Authority is known as:

Finances & Reports
  • A. The Punjab Consolidated Fund
  • B. The Punjab Development Fund
  • C. The Food Authority Fund
  • D. The Provincial Health Fund
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 46(1) establishes the Food Authority Fund, to be administered and controlled by the Food Authority.

Q154. Under Section 46(2), which of the following is a listed source of the Food Authority Fund?

Finances & Reports
  • A. Only federal budget allocations
  • B. Only foreign donor grants
  • C. Fee, charges, rentals and fines collected by the Food Authority
  • D. Only provincial sales tax
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 46(2)(e) lists fee, charges, rentals and fines collected by the Food Authority as one of the sources of the Food Authority Fund.

Q155. Under Section 49(1), whose responsibility is it to annually audit the accounts of the Food Authority?

Finances & Reports
  • A. The Auditor General of Pakistan
  • B. The Federal Board of Revenue
  • C. The Punjab Assembly’s Public Accounts Committee alone
  • D. Only an internal audit committee
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 49(1) requires the Auditor General of Pakistan to annually audit the accounts of the Food Authority.

Q156. Under Section 49(2), in addition to the Auditor General’s audit, the Government must also arrange an annual audit by:

Finances & Reports
  • A. Only the Chairperson personally
  • B. A second government department
  • C. A foreign audit body
  • D. A Chartered Accountant or firm of Chartered Accountants
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 49(2) requires the Government to additionally cause the accounts to be audited annually by a Chartered Accountant or a firm of Chartered Accountants.

Q157. Under Section 50(1), within how many months of the close of a financial year must the Food Authority submit its annual performance report to the Government?

Finances & Reports
  • A. Two months
  • B. One month
  • C. Six months
  • D. Three months
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 50(1) requires the annual performance report to be submitted to the Government within three months of the close of the financial year.

Q158. Under Section 50(3), within how many months of receiving the annual report must the Government lay it before the Provincial Assembly?

Finances & Reports
  • A. One month
  • B. Six months
  • C. Two months
  • D. Three months
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 50(3) requires the Government to give notice for laying the report before the Provincial Assembly within two months of receiving it.

Q159. Section 50A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, requires the Food Authority to submit performance reports to the Government at what interval?

Finances & Reports
  • A. Every three months
  • B. Monthly
  • C. Every six months
  • D. Annually only
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 50A(1), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, requires the Food Authority to submit a performance report to the Government every three months.

Q160. Section 50B, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, requires the Government to conduct a performance audit of the Food Authority:

Finances & Reports
  • A. Only if requested by the Chairperson
  • B. Every month
  • C. At least once a year
  • D. Only once every five years
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 50B(1), inserted by the 2016 Amendment, requires the Government to conduct or cause a performance audit of the Authority at least once a year.

Q161. Under Section 46(2)(g), the Food Authority Fund may include income raised through:

Finances & Reports
  • A. Only court-imposed fines
  • B. Floating bonds, shares, debentures, certificates or other securities issued by the Food Authority
  • C. Only cash donations
  • D. Only federal grants
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 46(2)(g) lists funds raised from floating bonds, shares, debentures, certificates or other securities issued by the Food Authority as a source of the Food Authority Fund.

Q162. Under Section 46(4), it is the duty of the Food Authority to:

Finances & Reports
  • A. Transfer the Fund annually to the Federal Government
  • B. Spend the Fund as quickly as possible each year
  • C. Distribute the Fund equally among all employees
  • D. Conserve the Food Authority Fund while performing its functions
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 46(4) places a duty on the Food Authority to conserve the Food Authority Fund while performing its functions and exercising its powers under the Act.

Q163. Under Section 47, the Food Authority may open and maintain its bank accounts:

Finances & Reports
  • A. Only in foreign currency accounts
  • B. Only at the State Bank of Pakistan
  • C. Only in cash, with no bank accounts permitted
  • D. At such scheduled banks as may be prescribed, or as the Government may determine until so prescribed
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 47 allows the Food Authority to open and maintain accounts at such scheduled banks as may be prescribed, and until prescribed, as the Government may determine.

Q164. Under Section 48(4), expenditure for which no provision exists in the approved budget requires:

Finances & Reports
  • A. No approval, as any spending is permitted
  • B. Only informal verbal consent from the Chairperson
  • C. Approval from any single member
  • D. Prior approval of the Food Authority
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 48(4) prohibits expenditure for which provision has not been made in an approved budget, without the prior approval of the Food Authority.

Q165. Under Section 51, which of the following functions may the Food Authority NOT delegate?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Minor administrative tasks
  • B. Day-to-day inspection duties
  • C. Framing or amending regulations
  • D. Routine correspondence
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 51(a) explicitly excludes the function of framing or amending regulations from the powers the Food Authority may delegate to a body, committee or officer.

Q166. Under Section 52, the Food Authority may make payment of a reward from the Food Authority Fund to:

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Only members of the Provincial Assembly
  • B. Only food operators
  • C. Any person who has made an exceptional effort towards accomplishing the objectives of the Act
  • D. Only its own employees
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 52 allows the Food Authority to reward, from its Fund, any person who has made an exceptional effort toward accomplishing the Act’s objectives, in the manner prescribed by rules.

Q167. Under Section 53, the Chairperson, members and employees of the Food Authority are deemed, when discharging their functions, to be public servants within the meaning of which law?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. The Code of Criminal Procedure 1898
  • B. The Punjab Civil Servants Act 1974
  • C. The Pakistan Penal Code 1860, Section 21
  • D. The Punjab Local Government Act
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 53 deems the Chairperson, members and employees to be public servants within the meaning of Section 21 of the Pakistan Penal Code 1860 (XLV of 1860).

Q168. Under Section 54, immunity from suit or prosecution applies to acts done:

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Only by the Chairperson personally
  • B. Only in cases involving no financial loss
  • C. Only after prior approval of the High Court
  • D. In good faith under the Act, the rules or the regulations
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 54 grants immunity from suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings for anything done in good faith under the Act, the rules or the regulations.

Q169. Section 54A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, bars which court from entertaining a suit against proceedings under the Act?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. The Supreme Court of Pakistan
  • B. A civil court
  • C. The Lahore High Court
  • D. The Special Court itself
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 54A, inserted by the 2016 Amendment, bars a civil court from entertaining a suit or application against any proceedings taken or order made under the Act.

Q170. Under Section 55, the provisions of the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 have effect:

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Only where not inconsistent with local government bylaws
  • B. Only within Lahore district
  • C. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
  • D. Subject to override by any subsequent provincial notification
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 55 provides that the Act’s provisions have overriding effect, notwithstanding anything contained in any other law.

Q171. Under Section 58(1), which earlier law is repealed by the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. The Punjab Pure Food Ordinance 1960
  • B. The Pakistan Penal Code 1860
  • C. The Punjab Land Revenue Act 1967
  • D. The Drugs Act 1976
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 58(1) repeals the Punjab Pure Food Ordinance 1960 (VII of 1960).

Q172. Under Section 58(4), which ordinance of the same year is also repealed by this Act?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. The Punjab Local Government Ordinance 2011
  • B. The Punjab Land Revenue Ordinance 2011
  • C. The Punjab Food Safety and Standards Authority Ordinance 2011 (I of 2011)
  • D. The Punjab Agriculture Ordinance 2011
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Section 58(4) repeals the Punjab Food Safety and Standards Authority Ordinance 2011 (I of 2011), which had briefly preceded this Act.

Q173. Under Section 59, who has the power to remove difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the Act?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. The Government, by notification
  • B. The Food Authority’s Scientific Panel
  • C. The Lahore High Court
  • D. Any Food Safety Officer
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 59 empowers the Government, by notification, to make provisions not inconsistent with the Act, as necessary for removing any difficulty in giving effect to its provisions.

Q174. The Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 was amended by which subsequent Act to insert provisions on gender representation in the Food Authority’s composition?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. The Punjab Food Authority (Amendment) Act 2016
  • B. The Punjab Local Government Act 2013
  • C. The Punjab Fair Representation of Women Act 2014
  • D. The Punjab Civil Servants (Amendment) Act 2015
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The Punjab Fair Representation of Women Act 2014 (IV of 2014) inserted the requirements for female representation among the nominated members under Section 4(1).

Q175. Under Section 57(2)(e), Food Authority regulations may specifically provide for limits of which of the following in food?

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Only packaging colour schemes
  • B. Additives, contaminants, toxic substances, heavy metals, pesticides and veterinary drug residues
  • C. Only price margins
  • D. Only water content
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 57(2)(e) allows regulations to provide for limits of additives, contaminants, toxic substances, heavy metals, pesticides, veterinary drugs and residues in food.

Q176. Under Section 57(2)(k), Food Authority regulations may provide guidelines for:

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Only the Chairperson’s travel allowance
  • B. Only advertising budgets
  • C. Only employee leave policies
  • D. Search of a premises, vehicle or person, and handling of food samples
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D

Section 57(2)(k) allows regulations to provide for search of a premises, vehicle or person, and guidelines for taking and handling samples of food.

Q177. Under Section 58(2), a licence issued under the repealed Punjab Pure Food Ordinance 1960 that was in force when the new Act commenced:

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. Requires immediate reapplication
  • B. Is deemed issued under the new Act and continues until expired, cancelled or withdrawn
  • C. Is only valid for thirty additional days
  • D. Automatically becomes void
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Section 58(2) provides that any licence or order in force under the repealed Ordinance is deemed issued under the new Act, continuing in force until expired, cancelled or withdrawn.

Q178. Under Section 58(3), standards and safety requirements under the repealed Ordinance continue in force:

Miscellaneous Provisions
  • A. To the extent consistent with the Act, until new standards are prescribed under the Act
  • B. Permanently, regardless of any new standards
  • C. Never, they are void immediately
  • D. Only for a fixed period of one year
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A

Section 58(3) provides that standards and safety requirements under the repealed Ordinance continue, to the extent consistent with the new Act, until new standards are prescribed under it.

About the Punjab Food Authority

The Punjab Food Authority (PFA) was established under the Punjab Food Authority Act 2011 (Act XVI of 2011), passed by the Punjab Assembly on 23 June 2011 and published in the Punjab Gazette on 6 July 2011. It is a body corporate under Section 3 of the Act, becoming operational as a functional entity in Lahore district from 2 July 2012 before expanding across the province. The Authority regulates and monitors the food business to ensure the provision of safe food, enforcing standards through Food Safety Officers, public analysts and a network of food laboratories, and operates under the Food Safety and Consumer Protection Department, Government of the Punjab.

Which sections carry the most weight?

Based on the structure of the Act, Chapter IV — Offences and Penalties (Sections 22 to 38) is the most heavily tested portion, given its precise, memorable figures: imprisonment terms, minimum and maximum fines, and compensation amounts for each offence. Chapter II (Establishment and Composition) and Chapter V (Jurisdiction and Procedure) follow closely, particularly the composition of the Food Authority, the structure of the Special Court, and appeal timelines. Candidates should also note which provisions were inserted or amended by the Punjab Food Authority (Amendment) Act 2016, since older preparation material often still reflects the original, pre-amendment penalty figures.

How should I prepare?

Work through each chapter on this page in order using the coverage table above, paying close attention to exact figures — the Act is unusually rich in specific numbers such as fine amounts, imprisonment terms, and appeal deadlines, which are precisely the kind of detail PPSC papers test directly. Once you have covered every chapter individually, shuffle all the questions together for exam-style revision to test recall across the whole Act rather than one section at a time.

Official sources used to prepare this page:

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